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#1
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A few days ago, King Juan Carlos of Spain made news by saying to President Chavez of Venezuela: "¿Por qué no te callas?"
My wife (a native speaker) says that the King’s announcement was a simple declarative statement, therefore it was properly expressed in the indicative mood. I maintain that it was an expression of frustration and exasperation, therefore it was an expression of emotion, and therefore should be better expressed in the subjunctive. Any thoughts? Thanks --Eric Last edited by eduncan : 11-20-2007 at 09:59 PM. |
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#2
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I have no idea but you should never question the King
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__________________
Charlar Chicago Organizer 312.622.0270 steve@charlarchicago.com Computer Problems? www.cavecompany.com |
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#3
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Es una buena pregunta!
I am a native speaker too, in fact from the country of your story's King ;-), and they way he said it sounds totally fine to me. I just think regular present tense sounds stronger than than the subjunctive. Hope this helps! kepa ![]() |
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#4
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Hi, i´m spanish, how can i explain..... in spanish, ok?? cuando una persona habla mucho, y lo que esta diciendo no tiene razón, y sigue una y otra vez con el mismo tema, la expresión para callarle en ingles sería: shut up!!!, pero en español es: ¿por qué no te callas? is like stop talking!!! because i have headche only with listen to you!!!.
i hope that you understand the explain |
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#5
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Muchisimas gracias Leticia para tu explanacion fantastica!
__________________
Charlar Chicago Organizer 312.622.0270 steve@charlarchicago.com Computer Problems? www.cavecompany.com |
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