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  #1  
Old 11-20-2007, 05:58 PM
eduncan eduncan is offline
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Default Should the King use the subjunctive?

A few days ago, King Juan Carlos of Spain made news by saying to President Chavez of Venezuela: "¿Por qué no te callas?"


My wife (a native speaker) says that the King’s announcement was a simple declarative statement, therefore it was properly expressed in the indicative mood.


I maintain that it was an expression of frustration and exasperation, therefore it was an expression of emotion, and therefore should be better expressed in the subjunctive.


Any thoughts?


Thanks


--Eric

Last edited by eduncan : 11-20-2007 at 09:59 PM.
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  #2  
Old 01-24-2008, 12:22 PM
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steve steve is offline
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I have no idea but you should never question the King
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Old 02-01-2008, 11:26 AM
keivi72 keivi72 is offline
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Es una buena pregunta!

I am a native speaker too, in fact from the country of your story's King ;-), and they way he said it sounds totally fine to me. I just think regular present tense sounds stronger than than the subjunctive.

Hope this helps!

kepa
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Old 10-13-2008, 01:04 PM
leticia leticia is offline
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Hi, i´m spanish, how can i explain..... in spanish, ok?? cuando una persona habla mucho, y lo que esta diciendo no tiene razón, y sigue una y otra vez con el mismo tema, la expresión para callarle en ingles sería: shut up!!!, pero en español es: ¿por qué no te callas? is like stop talking!!! because i have headche only with listen to you!!!.

i hope that you understand the explain
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Old 10-16-2008, 03:36 PM
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Muchisimas gracias Leticia para tu explanacion fantastica!
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